I must say that I have speculated (non-seriously, of course) the absolute latest for the spread of E1b1b (as well as other Haplogroups), and that would be the Roman period. Imagine that E1b1b was in Italy some time in the Neolithic/Chalcolithic. At the same note, for the sake of an argument I pick up Etrusco-Romano's idea that R1b-U152 is solely Italic/Roman in origin (something I don't believe but I'm going to run with for the sake of an argument):
Is it possible that (most) E1b, just like J2 and R1b-U152 all came from
Italy with spread of the Roman Empire? The consequence of this would be
that a fairly large percentage of the modern-day European population is
essentially in this composition for a very "young" time (past 2000
years, if you will). The question is: is this plausible at all? I don't
think it is, but I would like to hear your opinion.
Except that R1b-S28 is typical of Northern and Central Italy, J2 of
Central and Southern Italy while E1b1b is mostly from Southern Italy. So
if the Romans are responsible for the spread of these haplogroups,
there will be a regional bias depending on where the "settlers" came
from in Italy.
Actually Italy is the country with more Sephardic influence if I
remember well, so not "Spanish" at all. Jews were banned and expulsed
from the Peninsula by the Catholic Kings in a substantial degree, and
most of them went to Italy, Turkey, and other places. It's perfectly
reported in the historical documents that after the expulsion, the
Spanish society of the moment suffered a hard economic crisis due to
this. That's what it's not science fiction.
Also, if the Jewish influence was that huge, more West Asian and
Southwest Asian should appear in autosomal results. Of course, it's not
the case, so I'm afraid there's no significant connection between
haplogroup E and the Sephardic presence in Spain.
And the Moriscos were also expelled in the beggining of the XVIIth century
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